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What do you know about the author's background?

From my own readings of the Hebrew, I agree that the KJV translators were fairly literal. However, in the three occurances (Psa 4:4, 33:8 and 119:161 )of "stand*/stood and awe" in the KJV, it's not literal at all. There's only a single verb meaning "to fear, reverance" and the notion of "stand" is nowhere to be found.

So, at least in this case, the English idiom does not stem from an overly literal kjv rendition of Hebrew.

"they were just trying to create an accurate and usable translation of the Bible."

I don't think those were their only goals. I understand there was some tension among religious factions of the day, and the new official translation was supposed to smooth over doctrinal and political differences in order to unify King James' kingdom.

See God's Secretaries: The Making of the King James Bible, by Adam Nicolson

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